Which technology is popular right now in the IT industry?

In order to accomplish tasks, solve issues, and produce new goods or services, tools, techniques, processes, and systems are built using scientific knowledge and engineering concepts. It may also refer to the use of these devices, processes, and frameworks across a range of sectors, including manufacturing, healthcare, transportation, communication, and entertainment. A hammer or a knife are examples of rudimentary technology, while artificial intelligence, robots, and biotechnology are more advanced examples. By offering creative answers to societal problems, it seeks to enhance productivity, promote economic growth, and advance quality of life. Several technologies are currently in demand in the IT industry. The most well-liked ones consist of: 1. Cloud Computing: One of the most sought-after technologies, cloud computing has been in demand for a number of years. It enables businesses to manage, process, and store data on distant servers, hence requiring less physical infrastructure. 2. Artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning are revolutionising our way of life and the workplace. They are used to create prediction models, automate procedures, and perform real-time data analysis. In order to guard against illegal access to their networks and data, businesses are investing in cyber security solutions. 3. Internet of Things (IoT): An IoT is a network of interconnected devices that may exchange data and communicate with one another. To increase productivity and efficiency, this technology is being employed in many different sectors, including healthcare, manufacturing, and logistics. 4. Software development and IT operations are combined in DevOps, a set of activities. It enables businesses to develop, test, and distribute software more quickly and effectively. 5. Blockchain: A distributed ledger technology, blockchain is employed in the supply chain management, healthcare, and finance sectors. It offers a transparent and safe way to communicate and store data. Overall, these technologies are highly sought after because they give companies the chance to innovate, increase productivity, and maintain their competitiveness in the modern digital economy. ------------- Ahmad, Nazir. (22nd Feb 2023). Which technology is popular right now in the IT industry? Available at: [www.itzbasit54.blogspot.com] [Accessed 22 Feb. 2023].

The Impact of Social Media on Mental Health: A Study of Young Adults

The Impact of Social Media on Mental Health: A Study of Young Adult Social media has become an integral part of our daily lives, providing a platform for communication and connection with others. However, as social media use continues to rise, concerns have been raised about its impact on mental health, particularly in young adults. This essay will examine the impact of social media on mental health in young adults and discuss the results of a study on this topic. The potential for a detrimental effect on mental health is one of the main worries with regard to social media use. Due to the crucial stage of growth and identity construction that young adults are going through, they are particularly susceptible to the negative Consequences of social media use. Young adults who use social media have higher incidence of sadness, anxiety, and other mental health problems. Researchers at the University of Pennsylvania looked into how young individuals' mental health was affected by their usage of social media. 143 people were included in the study, and they were given the option to use social media as usual, or to restrict their usage to 30 minutes each day. According to the study, the participants who used social media less frequently had much fewer signs of loneliness and despair. The findings of this study demonstrate how young adults' mental health may be adversely affected by their use of social media. Social media use has been linked to higher incidence of anxiety and depression because it can lead to social isolation. Social media's incessant promotion of comparison to others can also exacerbate inadequacy and low self-worth. However, it is important to note that not all social media use is negative. In fact, social media can also have positive effects on mental health, such as providing a sense of community and social support. Social media can also be a valuable tool for raising awareness about mental health issues and connecting people with mental health resources. In conclusion, there is still much to learn about the impact of social media on the mental health of young adults. While it's critical to recognise the possible positive impacts of social media on mental health, it's equally important to recognise the negative effects of social media use on mental health. Social media usage is on the rise, so people should be mindful of how the use it and, as needed, seek out tools and support. The constant pressure to project a pristine picture to the world is one of the key causes of social media's detrimental effects on young people' mental health. A highly managed and idealised representation of one's life is frequently encouraged by social media, which can exacerbate feelings of inadequacy and poor self-esteem. Young adults may experience overwhelming feelings of anxiety, stress, and depression as a result of the temptation to continuously compare oneself to others and adhere to the standards that are supposedly set by social media. Social media addiction can have a detrimental impact on mental health aswell. The disruption of daily routines and productivity caused by excessive social media use can worsen emotions of guilt and low self-worth. Due to the constant barrage of messages and updates, which can raise tension and anxiety levels, many people may find it difficult to disconnect and decompress. While social media use can negatively impact mental health in young adults, it is important to recognize that not all social media use is equal. Certain types of social media use, such as using social media to connect with friends and family or to stay informed about current events, may have positive effects on mental health. Additionally, some social media platforms have taken steps to prioritize mental health and wellness, such as introducing features that allow users to manage their social media use and track their screen time. In conclusion, social media has the potential to significantly impact mental health in young adults, both positively and negatively. While social media can be a valuable tool for communication and connection, it is important for individuals to be mindful of their social media use and to seek out resources and support when needed. By promoting responsible social media use and prioritizing mental health and wellness, we can create a healthier and more positive social media culture.

The Exam Study Guide-for Medical Student - Crack NEET

The Exam Study Guide-for Medical Student - Crack NEET

Medical students should create a well-thought-out study strategy in order to succeed on the NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test). Concentrating on the subjects covered by the 👉syllabus and taking as many practice exams as possible is crucial. Watching lectures online and organizing study groups with classmates who may impart advice and aid one another in comprehending complex ideas are also advantageous. Last but not least, time management skills are crucial if you want to maximize your score and finish the exam on time.

Medical students need to be organized and well-prepared if they want to succeed in passing the NEET exam. First, it is vital to review the regulations and curriculum in depth. Additionally, students should make and follow a study timetable. Additionally, to become familiar with the structure and subject matter of the exam, students should complete as many question papers as possible.👉

to get the Online test practice click the following Link

It takes commitment and effort to succeed as a medical student, but it is not impossible. The first stage is establishing a good understanding of the basic sciences that constitute the foundation of your medical education. It is crucial to go through the content several times and to complete practice questions to hone your problem-solving abilities. It is also advantageous to use internet resources or attend lectures outside of the classroom.

Computer Fundamentals by Basit Iqbal from Career Ready J&K

https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLzH-aQhYb8XIYMugS0MYx-QWEP4MBfu2D

10 Java Programming (MCQs)

Java Programming (MCQs) 

1. Who invented Java Programming?

a) Guido van Rossum
b) James Gosling
c) Dennis Ritchie
d) Bjarne Stroustrup

Answer: b
Explanation: Java programming was developed by James Gosling at Sun Microsystems in 1995. James Gosling is well known as the father of Java.

2. Which statement is true about Java?
a) Java is a sequence-dependent programming language
b) Java is a code dependent programming language
c) Java is a platform-dependent programming language
d) Java is a platform-independent programming language

Answer: d
Explanation: Java is called ‘Platform Independent Language’ as it primarily works on the principle of ‘compile once, run everywhere’.

3. Which component is used to compile, debug and execute the java programs?
a) JRE
b) JIT
c) JDK
d) JVM

Answer: c
Explanation: JDK is a core component of Java Environment and provides all the tools, executables and binaries required to compile, debug and execute a Java Program.

4. Which one of the following is not a Java feature?
a) Object-oriented
b) Use of pointers
c) Portable
d) Dynamic and Extensible

Answer: b
Explanation: Pointers is not a Java feature. Java provides an efficient abstraction layer for developing without using a pointer in Java. Features of Java Programming are Portable, Architectural Neutral, Object-Oriented, Robust, Secure, Dynamic and Extensible, etc.

5. Which of these cannot be used for a variable name in Java?
a) identifier & keyword
b) identifier
c) keyword
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Keywords are specially reserved words that can not be used for naming a user-defined variable, for example, class, int, for, etc.

6. What is the extension of java code files?
a) .js
b) .txt
c) .class
d) .java

Answer: d
Explanation: Java files have .java extension.

7. What will be the output of the following Java code?

1.     class increment {

2.         public static void main(String args[]) 

3.         {        

4.              int g = 3;

5.              System.out.print(++g * 8);

6.         } 

7.     }

a) 32
b) 33
c) 24
d) 25

Answer: a
Explanation: Operator ++ has more preference than *, thus g becomes 4 and when multiplied by 8 gives 32.
output:

$ javac increment.java
$ java increment
32

8. Which environment variable is used to set the java path?
a) MAVEN_Path
b) JavaPATH
c) JAVA
d) JAVA_HOME

Answer: d
Explanation: JAVA_HOME is used to store a path to the java installation.

9. What will be the output of the following Java program?

1. class output {

2.         public static void main(String args[]) 

3.         {

4.             double a, b,c;

5.             a = 3.0/0;

6.             b = 0/4.0;

7.             c=0/0.0;

9. 	    System.out.println(a);

10.             System.out.println(b);

11.             System.out.println(c);

12.         } 

13.     }

a) NaN
b) Infinity
c) 0.0
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: For floating-point literals, we have a constant value to represent (10/0.0) infinity either positive or negative, and also have NaN (not a number for undefined like 0/0.0), but for the integral type, we don’t have any constant that’s why we get an arithmetic exception.

10. Which of the following is not an OOPS concept in Java?
a) Polymorphism
b) Inheritance
c) Compilation
d) Encapsulation

Answer: c
Explanation: There are 4 OOPS concepts in Java. Inheritance, Encapsulation, Polymorphism, and Abstraction.

MCQs on Computer Fundamentals

MCQs on Computer Fundamentals 

1. Who is the father of Computers?

a) James Gosling

b) Charles Babbage

c) Dennis Ritchie

d) Bjarne Stroustrup

Answer: b

Explanation: Charles Babbage is known as the father of computers. Charles Babbage designed and built the first mechanical computer and Difference Engine.

2. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation of COMPUTER?

a) Commonly Occupied Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research

b) Commonly Operated Machines Used in Technical and Environmental Research

c) Commonly Oriented Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research

d) Commonly Operated Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research

Answer: d

Explanation: The word COMPUTER is an abbreviation for the terms “Commonly Operated Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research”. The word COMPUTER also relates to the word COMPUTE which means to calculate. So initially, it was thought that a computer is a device that is used to perform calculations.

3. Which of the following is the correct definition of Computer?

a) Computer is a machine or device that can be programmed to perform arithmetical or logic operation sequences automatically

b) Computer understands only binary language which is written in the form of 0s & 1s

c) Computer is a programmable electronic device that stores, retrieves, and processes the data

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: A computer is a machine or device that can be programmed to perform arithmetical or logic operation sequences automatically. The computer understands only binary codes (0s & 1s).

4. What is the full form of CPU?

a) Computer Processing Unit

b) Computer Principle Unit

c) Central Processing Unit

d) Control Processing Unit

Answer: c

Explanation: CPU stands for Central Processing Unit. CPU is the part of a computer system that is mainly referred as the brain of the computer.

5. Which of the following language does the computer understand?

a) Computer understands only C Language

b) Computer understands only Assembly Language

c) Computer understands only Binary Language

d) Computer understands only BASIC

Answer: c

Explanation: The Computer understands only binary language which is written in the form of 0s & 1s. A computer can understand assembly language but an assembler is required which convert the assembly language to binary language. Similarly, for understanding high level languages, compilers/interpreters are required.

6. Which of the following computer language is written in binary codes only?

a) pascal

b) machine language

c) C

d) C#

Answer: b

Explanation: Machine Language is written in binary codes only. It can be easily understood by the computer and is very difficult for us to understand. A machine language, unlike other languages, requires no translators or interpreters.

7. Which of the following is the brain of the computer?

a) Central Processing Unit

b) Memory

c) Arithmetic and Logic unit

d) Control unit

Answer: a

Explanation: The CPU is referred to as the brain of a computer.

It consists of a control unit and an arithmetic and logic unit. It is responsible for performing all the processes and operations.

8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a computer?

a) Versatility

b) Accuracy

c) Diligence

d) I.Q.

Answer: d

Explanation: The Computer system has no I.Q. of its own. It does only what it is programmed to do. It cannot take decisions of its own.

A computer is diligent because it can work continuously for hours without getting any errors or without getting grumbled.

The accuracy of a computer is consistently high and its level of accuracy depends on its design. A computer can perform any task if, it can be broken down into a series of logical steps. Therefore, a computer is versatile.

9. Which of the following is the smallest unit of data in a computer?

a) Bit

b) KB

c) Nibble

d) Byte

Answer: a

Explanation: A bit is defined as the smallest unit of data in a computer system. It is used as a short form of Binary Digit. A bit can have only two values 0 or 1. A nibble comprises 4 bits, a byte is a collection of 8 bits whereas KB (Kilobyte) is equal to 1024 bytes.

10. Which of the following unit is responsible for converting the data received from the user into a computer understandable format?

a) Output Unit

b) Input Unit

c) Memory Unit

d) Arithmetic & Logic Unit

Answer: b

Explanation: The Input Unit converts the data, which the user enters into a language that the computer understands, i.e. it converts the data into binary format. The Output Unit is responsible for giving the results in a user-understandable format. The Storage Unit is responsible for storing the data after immediate results of processing whereas; the ALU is responsible for various arithmetic and bitwise operations.

Operating System MCQ's

MCQ's Operating System

Operating System – Basics

(MCQs) focuses on “Basics”.

1. What is operating system?
a) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
b) system service provider to the application programs
c) link to interface the hardware and application programs
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the
a) System calls
b) API
c) Library
d) Assembly instructions

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Which one of the following is not true?
a) kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system
b) kernel is the first part of operating system to load into memory during booting
c) kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating system
d) kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session

4. Which one of the following error will be handle by the operating system?
a) power failure
b) lack of paper in printer
c) connection failure in the network
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. The main function of the command interpreter is
a) to get and execute the next user-specified command
b) to provide the interface between the API and application program
c) to handle the files in operating system
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. By operating system, the resource management can be done via
a) time division multiplexing
b) space division multiplexing
c) both time and space division multiplexing
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. If a process fails, most operating system write the error information to a ______
a) log file
b) another running process
c) new file
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. Which facility dynamically adds probes to a running system, both in user processes and in the kernel?
a) DTrace
b) DLocate
c) DMap
d) DAdd

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?
a) VxWorks
b) Windows CE
c) RTLinux
d) Palm OS

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

10. The OS X has ____________
a) monolithic kernel
b) hybrid kernel
c) microkernel
d) monolithic kernel with modules

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

Operating System – Processes

(MCQs) focuses on “Processes”.

1. The systems which allows only one process execution at a time, are called
a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems
c) unitasking systems
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Those systems which allows more than one process execution at a time, are called multiprogramming systems. Uniprocessing means only one processor.

2. In operating system, each process has its own
a) address space and global variables
b) open files
c) pending alarms, signals and signal handlers
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. In Unix, Which system call creates the new process?
a) fork
b) create
c) new
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. A process can be terminated due to
a) normal exit
b) fatal error
c) killed by another process
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. What is the ready state of a process?
a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
b) when process is unable to run until some task has been completed
c) when process is using the CPU
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: When process is unable to run until some task has been completed, the process is in blocked state and if process is using the CPU, it is in running state.

6. What is interprocess communication?
a) communication within the process
b) communication between two process
c) communication between two threads of same process
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. A set of processes is deadlock if
a) each process is blocked and will remain so forever
b) each process is terminated
c) all processes are trying to kill each other
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. A process stack does not contain
a) Function parameters
b) Local variables
c) Return addresses
d) PID of child process

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. Which system call returns the process identifier of a terminated child?
a) wait
b) exit
c) fork
d) get

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by the
a) CPU registers
b) Program counter
c) Process stack
d) Pipe

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

Operating System – Process Control Block

(MCQs) focuses on “Process Control Block”.

1. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following :
a) Code
b) Stack
c) Bootstrap program
d) Data

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________
a) Output
b) Throughput
c) Efficiency
d) Capacity

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. The state of a process is defined by:
a) the final activity of the process
b) the activity just executed by the process
c) the activity to next be executed by the process
d) the current activity of the process

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. Which of the following is not the state of a process?
a) New
b) Old
c) Waiting
d) Running

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. The Process Control Block is:
a) Process type variable
b) Data Structure
c) A secondary storage section
d) A Block in memory

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in:
a) Process Register
b) Program Counter
c) Process Table
d) Process Unit

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. The degree of multiprogramming is:
a) the number of processes executed per unit time
b) the number of processes in the ready queue
c) the number of processes in the I/O queue
d) the number of processes in memory

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

Operating System – Process Scheduling Queues

 (MCQs) focuses on “Process Scheduling Queues”.

1. Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes ?
a) Job Queue
b) PCB queue
c) Device Queue
d) Ready Queue

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. When the process issues an I/O request :
a) It is placed in an I/O queue
b) It is placed in a waiting queue
c) It is placed in the ready queue
d) It is placed in the Job queue

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. When a process terminates :
a) It is removed from all queues
b) It is removed from all, but the job queue
c) Its process control block is de-allocated
d) Its process control block is never de-allocated

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. What is a long-term scheduler ?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be ______ and the Short term Scheduler will have a ______ to do.
a) full,little
b) full,lot
c) empty,little
d) empty,lot

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. What is a medium-term scheduler ?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. What is a short-term scheduler ?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long term scheduler is :
a) The length of their queues
b) The type of processes they schedule
c) The frequency of their execution
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is :
a) block
b) wakeup
c) dispatch
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed, the process goes from the running state to the :
a) Blocked state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

11. In a multiprogramming environment :
a) the processor executes more than one process at a time
b) the programs are developed by more than one person
c) more than one process resides in the memory
d) a single user can execute many programs at the same time

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

12. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the service is completed, it goes to the :
a) Running state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

Operating System – Process Synchronization

 (MCQs) focuses on “Process Synchronization”.

1. Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the system?
a) cooperating process
b) child process
c) parent process
d) init process

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the execution depends on the particular order in which the access takes place, is called
a) dynamic condition
b) race condition
c) essential condition
d) critical condition

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be executing in their critical section. This condition is called
a) mutual exclusion
b) critical exclusion
c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. Which one of the following is a synchronization tool?
a) thread
b) pipe
c) semaphore
d) socket

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. A semaphore is a shared integer variable
a) that can not drop below zero
b) that can not be more than zero
c) that can not drop below one
d) that can not be more than one

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the
a) mutex locks
b) binary semaphores
c) both mutex locks and binary semaphores
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Binary Semaphores are known as mutex locks.

7. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority task effectively inverting the relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario is called
a) priority inversion
b) priority removal
c) priority exchange
d) priority modification

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. Process synchronization can be done on
a) hardware level
b) software level
c) both hardware and software level
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. A monitor is a module that encapsulates
a) shared data structures
b) procedures that operate on shared data structure
c) synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

10. To enable a process to wait within the monitor,
a) a condition variable must be declared as condition
b) condition variables must be used as boolean objects
c) semaphore must be used
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

Operating System – Process Creation

MCQs focuses on “Process Creation”

1. Restricting the child process to a subset of the parent’s resources prevents any process from :
a) overloading the system by using a lot of secondary storage
b) under-loading the system by very less CPU utilization
c) overloading the system by creating a lot of sub-processes
d) crashing the system by utilizing multiple resources

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

2. A parent process calling _____ system call will be suspended until children processes terminate.
a) wait
b) fork
c) exit
d) exec

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes before the parent terminates ______
a) Normally
b) Abnormally
c) Normally or abnormally
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. With _____________ only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other process are waiting for the processor. With ______________ more than one process can be running simultaneously each on a different processor.
a) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming
b) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing
c) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing
d) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. In UNIX, each process is identified by its :
a) Process Control Block
b) Device Queue
c) Process Identifier
d) None of the the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. In UNIX, the return value for the fork system call is _____ for the child process and _____ for the parent process.
a) A Negative integer, Zero
b) Zero, A Negative integer
c) Zero, A nonzero integer
d) A nonzero integer, Zero

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. The child process can :
a) be a duplicate of the parent process
b) never be a duplicate of the parent process
c) cannot have another program loaded into it
d) never have another program loaded into it

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. The child process completes execution,but the parent keeps executing, then the child process is known as :
a) Orphan
b) Zombie
c) Body
d) Dead

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

Operating System – Inter Process Communication

 (MCQs) focuses on “Inter Process Communication”.

1. Inter process communication :
a) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the same address space
b) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions without using the same address space
c) allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. Message passing system allows processes to :
a) communicate with one another without resorting to shared data
b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data
c) share data
d) name the recipient or sender of the message

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. An IPC facility provides at least two operations :
a) write & delete message
b) delete & receive message
c) send & delete message
d) receive & send message

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. Messages sent by a process :
a) have to be of a fixed size
b) have to be a variable size
c) can be fixed or variable sized
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called :
a) communication link
b) message-passing link
c) synchronization link
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. Which of the following are TRUE for direct communication :
a) A communication link can be associated with N number of process(N = max. number of processes supported by system)
b) A communication link can be associated with exactly two processes
c) Exactly N/2 links exist between each pair of processes(N = max. number of processes supported by system)
d) Exactly two link exists between each pair of processes

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. In indirect communication between processes P and Q :
a) there is another process R to handle and pass on the messages between P and Q
b) there is another machine between the two processes to help communication
c) there is a mailbox to help communication between P and Q
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. In the non blocking send :
a) the sending process keeps sending until the message is received
b) the sending process sends the message and resumes operation
c) the sending process keeps sending until it receives a message
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. In the Zero capacity queue :
a) the queue can store at least one message
b) the sender blocks until the receiver receives the message
c) the sender keeps sending and the messages don’t wait in the queue
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. The Zero Capacity queue :
a) is referred to as a message system with buffering
b) is referred to as a message system with no buffering
c) is referred to as a link
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

Operating System – CPU Scheduling

Choice (MCQs) focuses on “CPU Scheduling”.

1. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term scheduler?
a) dispatcher
b) interrupt
c) scheduler
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are kept on a list called
a) job queue
b) ready queue
c) execution queue
d) process queue

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed as
a) waiting time
b) turnaround time
c) response time
d) throughput

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU first?
a) first-come, first-served scheduling
b) shortest job scheduling
c) priority scheduling
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. In priority scheduling algorithm
a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c) Equal priority processes can not be scheduled
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is compared with the priority of
a) all process
b) currently running process
c) parent process
d) init process

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. Time quantum is defined in
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Process are classified into different groups in
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm
a) a process can move to a different classified ready queue
b) classification of ready queue is permanent
c) processes are not classified into groups
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by the kernel?
a) kernel level thread
b) user level thread
c) process
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: User level threads are managed by thread library and the kernel in unaware of them.

Operating System – Deadlock

 (MCQs) focuses on “Deadlock”.

1. What is the reusable resource?
a) that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted by that use
b) that can be used by more than one process at a time
c) that can be shared between various threads
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. Which of the following condition is required for deadlock to be possible?
a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other resources
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. A system is in the safe state if
a) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a deadlock
b) there exist a safe sequence
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. The circular wait condition can be prevented by
a) defining a linear ordering of resource types
b) using thread
c) using pipes
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?
a) banker’s algorithm
b) round-robin algorithm
c) elevator algorithm
d) karn’s algorithm

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. What is the drawback of banker’s algorithm?
a) in advance processes rarely know that how much resource they will need
b) the number of processes changes as time progresses
c) resource once available can disappear
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. For effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?
a) every time a resource request is made
b) at fixed time intervals
c) every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually denied necessary resources is called
a) deadlock
b) starvation
c) inversion
d) aging

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. Which one of the following is a visual ( mathematical ) way to determine the deadlock occurrence?
a) resource allocation graph
b) starvation graph
c) inversion graph
d) none of the mentioned

10. To avoid deadlock
a) there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
b) resource allocation must be done only once
c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted
d) inversion technique can be used

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

Operating System – Memory Management

MCQs) focuses on “Memory Management”.

1. CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of
a) program counter
b) status register
c) instruction register
d) program status word

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. A memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential is called
a) stack pointer
b) cache
c) accumulator
d) disk buffer

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?
a) physical address
b) absolute address
c) logical address
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

4. Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by
a) Memory management unit
b) CPU
c) PCI
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data from secondary storage for use in main memory is called
a) fragmentation
b) paging
c) mapping
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

6. The address of a page table in memory is pointed by
a) stack pointer
b) page table base register
c) page register
d) program counter

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. Program always deals with
a) logical address
b) absolute address
c) physical address
d) relative address

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. The page table contains
a) base address of each page in physical memory
b) page offset
c) page size
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. What is compaction?
a) a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
b) a paging technique
c) a technique for overcoming external fragmentation
d) a technique for overcoming fatal error

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. Operating System maintains the page table for
a) each process
b) each thread
c) each instruction
d) each address

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

Operating System – Memory Management – Memory Allocation – 1

 (MCQs) focuses on “Memory Management – Memory Allocation – 1”.

1. The main memory accommodates :
a) operating system
b) cpu
c) user processes
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. The operating system is :
a) in the low memory
b) in the high memory
c) either low or high memory (depending on the location of interrupt vector)
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. In contiguous memory allocation :
a) each process is contained in a single contiguous section of memory
b) all processes are contained in a single contiguous section of memory
c) the memory space is contiguous
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. The relocation register helps in :
a) providing more address space to processes
b) a different address space to processes
c) to protect the address spaces of processes
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. With relocation and limit registers, each logical address must be _______ the limit register.
a) less than
b) equal to
c) greater than
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. The operating system and the other processes are protected from being modified by an already running process because :
a) they are in different memory spaces
b) they are in different logical addresses
c) they have a protection algorithm
d) every address generated by the CPU is being checked against the relocation and limit registers

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. Transient operating system code is code that :
a) is not easily accessible
b) comes and goes as needed
c) stays in the memory always
d) never enters the memory space

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Using transient code, _______ the size of the operating system during program execution.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) changes
d) maintains

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. When memory is divided into several fixed sized partitions, each partition may contain ________
a) exactly one process
b) at least one process
c) multiple processes at once
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. In fixed size partition, the degree of multiprogramming is bounded by ___________
a) the number of partitions
b) the CPU utilization
c) the memory size
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None

Operating System – Memory Management – Memory Allocation – 2

 “Memory Allocation – 2”.

1. In internal fragmentation, memory is internal to a partition and :
a) is being used
b) is not being used
c) is always used
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

2. A solution to the problem of external fragmentation is :
a) compaction
b) larger memory space
c) smaller memory space
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Another solution to the problem of external fragmentation problem is to :
a) permit the logical address space of a process to be noncontiguous
b) permit smaller processes to be allocated memory at last
c) permit larger processes to be allocated memory at last
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. If relocation is static and is done at assembly or load time, compaction _________
a) cannot be done
b) must be done
c) must not be done
d) can be done

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. The disadvantage of moving all process to one end of memory and all holes to the other direction, producing one large hole of available memory is :
a) the cost incurred
b) the memory used
c) the CPU used
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. __________ is generally faster than _________ and _________
a) first fit, best fit, worst fit
b) best fit, first fit, worst fit
c) worst fit, best fit, first fit
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. External fragmentation exists when :
a) enough total memory exists to satisfy a request but it is not contiguous
b) the total memory is insufficient to satisfy a request
c) a request cannot be satisfied even when the total memory is free
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. External fragmentation will not occur when :
a) first fit is used
b) best fit is used
c) worst fit is used
d) no matter which algorithm is used, it will always occur

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

9. Sometimes the overhead of keeping track of a hole might be :
a) larger than the memory
b) larger than the hole itself
c) very small
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. When the memory allocated to a process is slightly larger than the process, then :
a) internal fragmentation occurs
b) external fragmentation occurs
c) both internal and external fragmentation occurs
d) neither internal nor external fragmentation occurs

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

Operating System – Memory Management – Paging – 1

 (MCQs) focuses on “Paging – 1”.

1. Physical memory is broken into fixed-sized blocks called ________
a) frames
b) pages
c) backing store
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. Logical memory is broken into blocks of the same size called _________
a) frames
b) pages
c) backing store
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. Every address generated by the CPU is divided into two parts :
a) frame bit & page number
b) page number & page offset
c) page offset & frame bit
d) frame offset & page offset

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. The __________ is used as an index into the page table.
a) frame bit
b) page number
c) page offset
d) frame offset

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. The _____ table contains the base address of each page in physical memory.
a) process
b) memory
c) page
d) frame

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. The size of a page is typically :
a) varied
b) power of 2
c) power of 4
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. If the size of logical address space is 2 to the power of m, and a page size is 2 to the power of n addressing units, then the high order _____ bits of a logical address designate the page number, and the ____ low order bits designate the page offset.
a) m, n
b) n, m
c) m – n, m
d) m – n, n

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

8. With paging there is no ________ fragmentation.
a) internal
b) external
c) either type of
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. The operating system maintains a ______ table that keeps track of how many frames have been allocated, how many are there, and how many are available.
a) page
b) mapping
c) frame
d) memory

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. Paging increases the ______ time.
a) waiting
b) execution
c) context – switch
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

11. Smaller page tables are implemented as a set of _______
a) queues
b) stacks
c) counters
d) registers

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

12. The page table registers should be built with _______
a) very low speed logic
b) very high speed logic
c) a large memory space
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

Operating System – Memory Management – Paging – 2

MCQs focuses on “Paging – 2”.

1. Each entry in a Translation lookaside buffer (TLB) consists of :
a) key
b) value
c) bit value
d) constant

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. If a page number is not found in the TLB, then it is known as a :
a) TLB miss
b) Buffer miss
c) TLB hit
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. An ______ uniquely identifies processes and is used to provide address space protection for that process.
a) address space locator
b) address space identifier
c) address process identifier
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. The percentage of times a page number is found in the TLB is known as :
a) miss ratio
b) hit ratio
c) miss percent
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by :
a) protection algorithm with each page
b) restricted access rights to users
c) restriction on page visibility
d) protection bit with each page

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page :
a) is in the TLB
b) has data in it
c) is in the process’s logical address space
d) is the system’s physical address space

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Illegal addresses are trapped using the _____ bit.
a) error
b) protection
c) valid – invalid
d) access

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

8. When there is a large logical address space, the best way of paging would be :
a) not to page
b) a two level paging algorithm
c) the page table itself
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. In a paged memory, the page hit ratio is 0.35. The required to access a page in secondary memory is equal to 100 ns. The time required to access a page in primary memory is 10 ns. The average time required to access a page is :
a) 3.0 ns
b) 68.0 ns
c) 68.5 ns
d) 78.5 ns

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is used. With dynamic loading, a routine is not loaded until it is called. For implementing dynamic loading,
a) special support from hardware is required
b) special support from operating system is essential
c) special support from both hardware and operating system is essential
d) user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or operating system

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

Operating System – Memory Management – Segmentation

MCQs focuses on “Memory Management – Segmentation”

1. In segmentation, each address is specified by :
a) a segment number & offset
b) an offset & value
c) a value & segment number
d) a key & value

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. In paging the user provides only ________ which is partitioned by the hardware into ________ and ______
a) one address, page number, offset
b) one offset, page number, address
c) page number, offset, address
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. Each entry in a segment table has a :
a) segment base
b) segment peak
c) segment value
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

4. The segment base contains the :
a) starting logical address of the process
b) starting physical address of the segment in memory
c) segment length
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. The segment limit contains the :
a) starting logical address of the process
b) starting physical address of the segment in memory
c) segment length
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

6. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be :
a) greater than segment limit
b) between 0 and segment limit
c) between 0 and the segment number
d) greater than the segment number

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

7. If the offset is legal :
a) it is used as a physical memory address itself
b) it is subtracted from the segment base to produce the physical memory address
c) it is added to the segment base to produce the physical memory address
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. When the entries in the segment tables of two different processes point to the same physical location :
a) the segments are invalid
b) the processes get blocked
c) segments are shared
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

9. The protection bit is 0/1 based on :
a) write only
b) read only
c) read – write
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

10. If there are 32 segments, each of size 1Kb, then the logical address should have :
a) 13 bits
b) 14 bits
c) 15 bits
d) 16 bits

Answer: a
Explanation: To specify a particular segment, 5 bits are required. To select a particular byte after selecting a page, 10 more bits are required. Hence 15 bits are required.

Operating System – File System Concepts

 (MCQs) focuses on “File System Concepts”.

1. ______ is a unique tag, usually a number, identifies the file within the file system.
a) File identifier
b) File name
c) File type
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

2. To create a file
a) allocate the space in file system
b) make an entry for new file in directory
c) allocate the space in file system & make an entry for new file in directory
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

3. By using the specific system call, we can
a) open the file
b) read the file
c) write into the file
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

4. File type can be represented by
a) file name
b) file extension
c) file identifier
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. Which file is a sequence of bytes organized into blocks understandable by the system’s linker?
a) object file
b) source file
c) executable file
d) text file

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. What is the mounting of file system?
a) crating of a filesystem
b) deleting a filesystem
c) attaching portion of the file system into a directory structure
d) removing portion of the file system into a directory structure

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

7. Mapping of file is managed by
a) file metadata
b) page table
c) virtual memory
d) file system

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. Mapping of network file system protocol to local file system is done by
a) network file system
b) local file system
c) volume manager
d) remote mirror

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. Which one of the following explains the sequential file access method?
a) random access according to the given byte number
b) read bytes one at a time, in order
c) read/write sequentially by record
d) read/write randomly by record

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. file system fragmentation occurs when
a) unused space or single file are not contiguous
b) used space is not contiguous
c) unused space is non-contiguous
d) multiple files are non-contiguous

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

Operating System – File System Implementation – Allocation Methods – 1

 (MCQs) focuses on “Allocation Methods – 1”.

1. The three major methods of allocating disk space that are in wide use are :
a) contiguous
b) linked
c) indexed
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. In contiguous allocation :
a) each file must occupy a set of contiguous blocks on the disk
b) each file is a linked list of disk blocks
c) all the pointers to scattered blocks are placed together in one location
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

3. In linked allocation :
a) each file must occupy a set of contiguous blocks on the disk
b) each file is a linked list of disk blocks
c) all the pointers to scattered blocks are placed together in one location
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. In indexed allocation :
a) each file must occupy a set of contiguous blocks on the disk
b) each file is a linked list of disk blocks
c) all the pointers to scattered blocks are placed together in one location
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

5. On systems where there are multiple operating system, the decision to load a particular one is done by :
a) boot loader
b) bootstrap
c) process control block
d) file control block

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

6. The VFS (virtual file system) activates file system specific operations to handle local requests according to their _______
a) size
b) commands
c) timings
d) file system types

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

7. The real disadvantage of a linear list of directory entries is the :
a) size of the linear list in memory
b) linear search to find a file
c) it is not reliable
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

8. Contiguous allocation of a file is defined by :
a) disk address of the first block & length
b) length & size of the block
c) size of the block
d) total size of the file

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. One difficulty of contiguous allocation is :
a) finding space for a new file
b) inefficient
c) costly
d) time taking

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. _______ and ________ are the most common strategies used to select a free hole from the set of available holes.
a) First fit, Best fit
b) Worst fit, First fit
c) Best fit, Worst fit
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

11. The first fit and best fit algorithms suffer from:
a) internal fragmentation
b) external fragmentation
c) starvation
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

12. To solve the problem of external fragmentation, ________ needs to be done periodically.
a) compaction
b) check
c) formatting
d) replacing memory

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

13. If too little space is allocated to a file
a) the file will not work
b) there will not be any space for the data, as the FCB takes it all
c) the file cannot be extended
d) the file cannot be opened

Answer: c
Explanation: None.